Did Jesus have to be God in pre-existence?

[Artfuldodger]

I know that most Christians believe Christ pre-existed with his Father before his coming to the earth. That's a pretty basic Trinity belief.
My question is why did Jesus need to be or have to be God? What part of his redemption process of dying as a man required him to be God as well?
Couldn't he have pre-existed with God without having to actually be God?

 

[Artfuldodger]

I think to understand why he had to be a man goes back to Israel and the Messiah had to be the High Priest.

Hebrews 2:17-18
17 For this reason he had to be made like them, fully human in every way, in order that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in service to God, and that he might make atonement for the sins of the people. 18 Because he himself suffered when he was tempted, he is able to help those who are being tempted.

Hebrews 4:14-15
14 Therefore, since we have a great high priest who has ascended into heaven, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold firmly to the faith we profess. 15 For we do not have a high priest who is unable to empathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are —yet he did not sin.​

I notice a lot of scripture calls Jesus the Son of God. It doesn't say Jesus God the Son of Father God. It just says Jesus the Son of God.

Hebrews 7:26
26 Such a high priest truly meets our need—one who is holy, blameless, pure, set apart from sinners, exalted above the heavens.

Some say only God could be holy, blameless, pure, and set apart form sinners.

But if God exalted this person and put his Spirit within this person, couldn't he live holy and pure without divinity?

Did the Jews at that time believe the Messiah had to be God? Not that that would answer the truth, just asking.

Isaiah 45:1
"This is what the LORD says to his anointed, to Cyrus, whose right hand I take hold of to subdue nations before him and to strip kings of their armor, to open doors before him so that gates will not be shut:

Was this verse prophesy of Christ?

 

[1gr8bldr]

I think to understand why he had to be a man goes back to Israel and the Messiah had to be the High Priest.

Hebrews 2:17-18​

17 For this reason he had to be made like them, fully human in every way, in order that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in service to God, and that he might make atonement for the sins of the people. 18 Because he himself suffered when he was tempted, he is able to help those who are being tempted.​

​

Hebrews 4:14-15​

14 Therefore, since we have a great high priest who has ascended into heaven, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold firmly to the faith we profess. 15 For we do not have a high priest who is unable to empathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are —yet he did not sin.​

I notice a lot of scripture calls Jesus the Son of God. It doesn't say Jesus God the Son of Father God. It just says Jesus the Son of God.

Hebrews 7:26
26 Such a high priest truly meets our need—one who is holy, blameless, pure, set apart from sinners, exalted above the heavens.

Some say only God could be holy, blameless, pure, and set apart form sinners.

But if God exalted this person and put his Spirit within this person, couldn't he live holy and pure without divinity?

Did the Jews at that time believe the Messiah had to be God? Not that that would answer the truth, just asking.

Isaiah 45:1
"This is what the LORD says to his anointed, to Cyrus, whose right hand I take hold of to subdue nations before him and to strip kings of their armor, to open doors before him so that gates will not be shut:

Was this verse prophesy of Christ?

The OT context of firstborn Son of God is given in detail. The firstborn son ran his fathers estate, like a business. He was the head of the household. The levites were charged with the task of taking care of the temple duties. All else had to make a yearly sacrifice as a reminder that a replacement was in their place. Before the Levites were charged with this task, the firstborn of every family was brought to the templeto serve in the temple duties. The remainder of the family did not have to because the firstborn wholly redeemed the remainder of the family. Those of the family of God have been redeemed by their firstborn brother, and no longer is a replacement sacrifice being offered. We now have a faithful high priest who intercededs on our behalf. Many say he had to be God to pay the price..... well then, since God can't die, their still needing a savior.

 

[1gr8bldr]

The Jews knew much more about this book than we will ever know. They did not expect the messiah to be God. They expected him to be annointed by God. One might say, well, then, they just missed it. Hmmmm, then why was it never explained in the NT. We see no clarification, no explaining three is one, no explaining a plural God, no context involving this complex subject. The missing context. Rather than ask what ambiguous sentences we can use to create that Jesus is God, we should focus on what's missing from the NT