gordon 2
Senior Member
I have read that Psalm 16, especially verse 10 was to the Jews in the days of Paul and Peter and perhaps it still is, referring to the Messiah and the individual. However, I can't find first sources where Jews have said this or even hinted at it. Can anyone help me in this?
Now I know that Paul and Peter and Christians ever since refer to it as indicative of the resurrection of Jesus, but this is not what I'm after.
It seems that since Paul and Peter believed it had relevance to the Jews of their day, and that some biblical footnotes indicate that the Jews admitted there was some Jewish agreement that it was messianic in meaning... there must be other sources that indicate this from the Jews themselves.
I know that from Acts 13 that the "gentiles who feared God", as Paul and Barnabas ministered to them in the Synagogues, that for them ( gentiles) the implications of the Messiah rubbing out physical death seems an essential to seeing the validity of the resurrection on a personal level and indeed pointing out that Jesus was indeed the promised Savoir.
So where and how did the gentiles learn this or know this so as to make Jesus plain to who he was and the implication for them? I have to assume it is from the Jews?
So again what is a first source or sources that the Jews understood that physical death removed from man's life was applied to the Messiah? I have tried to research this on the net, but I always get Christian perspective or Jewish perspectives that indicate that the reference is not to the individual but to Israel or Jewish people in general.
( It seems to me that from a purely logical aspect ( from a gentile perspective perhaps) the idea that since eternal life was not a given since the fall and that physical death was, the restoration to eternal life via the resurrection and the gift of Comforter was also indicative of some sort of physical immortality. But is it this simple?)
So again, anyone have references for Jewish ideas current in the days of Paul and Peter on Psalm 16 where Jews did agree that verse 10 is indicative of aspect of the Messiah?
Now I know that Paul and Peter and Christians ever since refer to it as indicative of the resurrection of Jesus, but this is not what I'm after.
It seems that since Paul and Peter believed it had relevance to the Jews of their day, and that some biblical footnotes indicate that the Jews admitted there was some Jewish agreement that it was messianic in meaning... there must be other sources that indicate this from the Jews themselves.
I know that from Acts 13 that the "gentiles who feared God", as Paul and Barnabas ministered to them in the Synagogues, that for them ( gentiles) the implications of the Messiah rubbing out physical death seems an essential to seeing the validity of the resurrection on a personal level and indeed pointing out that Jesus was indeed the promised Savoir.
So where and how did the gentiles learn this or know this so as to make Jesus plain to who he was and the implication for them? I have to assume it is from the Jews?
So again what is a first source or sources that the Jews understood that physical death removed from man's life was applied to the Messiah? I have tried to research this on the net, but I always get Christian perspective or Jewish perspectives that indicate that the reference is not to the individual but to Israel or Jewish people in general.
( It seems to me that from a purely logical aspect ( from a gentile perspective perhaps) the idea that since eternal life was not a given since the fall and that physical death was, the restoration to eternal life via the resurrection and the gift of Comforter was also indicative of some sort of physical immortality. But is it this simple?)
So again, anyone have references for Jewish ideas current in the days of Paul and Peter on Psalm 16 where Jews did agree that verse 10 is indicative of aspect of the Messiah?
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