gordon 2
Senior Member
"But woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye shut up the kingdom of heaven against men: for ye neither go in yourselves, neither suffer ye them that are entering to go in."
If the kingdom is not for now as some bible believers would understand and is only an item when Jesus returns... why did Jesus say the above? How could he say, " ye neither go in yourselves" and " neither suffer ye them that are entering to go in"?
If the kingdom was not an item of spiritual life at the time Jesus said this, why did he bother saying it? If it was not in existence, why bother saying " for ye neither go in yourselves" when there was no such thing as the kingdom for these Pharisees to go into? What am I not understanding?
Can someone who is bible based explain to me how the above verse can be reconciled by some who are bible based that the Kingdom will occur and only occur when Christ returns ( Second Coming)? This is a serious question for discussion. I'm looking for serious answers.
If the kingdom is not for now as some bible believers would understand and is only an item when Jesus returns... why did Jesus say the above? How could he say, " ye neither go in yourselves" and " neither suffer ye them that are entering to go in"?
If the kingdom was not an item of spiritual life at the time Jesus said this, why did he bother saying it? If it was not in existence, why bother saying " for ye neither go in yourselves" when there was no such thing as the kingdom for these Pharisees to go into? What am I not understanding?
Can someone who is bible based explain to me how the above verse can be reconciled by some who are bible based that the Kingdom will occur and only occur when Christ returns ( Second Coming)? This is a serious question for discussion. I'm looking for serious answers.
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