Artfuldodger
Senior Member
What does this mean in Romans 2:12-13?
When the Gentiles sin, they will be destroyed, even though they never had God's written law. And the Jews, who do have God's law, will be judged by that law when they fail to obey it.
For it is not those who hear the law who are righteous in God's sight, but it is those who obey the law who will be declared righteous.
Wasn't this written after the event of Ephesians 2:15?
by abolishing the law of commandments expressed in ordinances, that he might create in himself one new man in place of the two, so making peace,
If Christ abolished or ended or set aside the Law, why is Paul still telling us that "Gentiles will die when they sin and Jews will be judged by the Law if they fail to keep it?"
Is Paul still of the mindset that Jews and Gentiles are different describing one fate for Jews and another for Gentiles?
Did he forget that Christ died on the cross to abolish the Law that was causing the division?
When the Gentiles sin, they will be destroyed, even though they never had God's written law. And the Jews, who do have God's law, will be judged by that law when they fail to obey it.
For it is not those who hear the law who are righteous in God's sight, but it is those who obey the law who will be declared righteous.
Wasn't this written after the event of Ephesians 2:15?
by abolishing the law of commandments expressed in ordinances, that he might create in himself one new man in place of the two, so making peace,
If Christ abolished or ended or set aside the Law, why is Paul still telling us that "Gentiles will die when they sin and Jews will be judged by the Law if they fail to keep it?"
Is Paul still of the mindset that Jews and Gentiles are different describing one fate for Jews and another for Gentiles?
Did he forget that Christ died on the cross to abolish the Law that was causing the division?