rjcruiser
Senior Member
The baptizing of whole households would have to include infants and children too.
Why would it have to? Not in the context it is used.
I would guess if baptizing infants was strictly forbidden it would have been negligent to not include it in the scripture.
What is the purpose of Baptism and who is it for? It is to be a public demonstration of a true believer's faith in Christ. Like circumcision for the Jews. Something that sets them apart from the rest of the world. Something that identifies them with Christ.
If it is strictly for believers, why would it even be a question as to if infants need to be baptized. Obviously, a child can't make a decision of faith, so no need to be baptized or even make it forbidden. So the scripture is not being negligent by not including it.